Indian Polity MCQ

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Indian Polity MCQs – Test your knowledge with multiple-choice questions on Polity covering governance, constitutions and political systems.

Polity is a subject that focuses on the system of government and how it works. It explains the key ideas and fundamentals behind the country’s executive, judiciary, legislature, and other important constitutional bodies and organizations.
Polity is a vital part of many competitive exams, especially those for government positions like civil services and state services. Therefore, understanding the basics of this subject is important.
This article provides a collection of important multiple-choice questions (MCQs) to help you get a better sense of the types of questions you might encounter in exams related to polity.
1. Which of the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Alladi Krishnaswamy
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Gopalaswami Ayyangar

Answer: (C) Rajendra Prasad

Explanation: The Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution had several prominent members including B.R. Ambedkar as the Chairman, Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar, and Gopalaswami Ayyangar. Rajendra Prasad, although a significant figure in the Constituent Assembly, was not a member of the Drafting Committee; he was the President of the Constituent Assembly.

2. What does Constitutional Monarchy mean?
(A) The king writes the constitution
(B) The king interprets the constitution
(C) The king exercises power granted by the constitution
(D) The king is elected by the people

Answer: (C) The king exercises power granted by the constitution

Explanation: A Constitutional Monarchy is a form of government in which a monarch acts as the head of state within the parameters of a constitution. The monarch’s powers are limited and defined by the constitution, and they usually act in accordance with the advice of the elected government.

3. When was the First Central Legislative Assembly constituted?
(A) 1922
(B) 1923
(C) 1921
(D) 1920

Answer: (C) 1921

Explanation: The First Central Legislative Assembly was constituted in 1921 under the Government of India Act 1919, which introduced the system of dyarchy in the provinces and expanded the legislative councils.

4. How does the Constitution of India describe India?
(A) A Confederation
(B) Semi-Federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Union of States

Answer: (D) Union of States

Explanation: The Constitution of India describes India as a “Union of States,” which means that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement by the states but rather a single nation with a central authority. The states have no right to secede from the union.

5. The concept of ‘Rule of Law‘ is a special feature of the constitutional system of which of the following?
(A) United Kingdom
(B) U.S.A.
(C) France
(D) Switzerland

Answer: (A) United Kingdom

Explanation: The concept of the ‘Rule of Law’ is a fundamental principle in the British constitutional system, implying that all individuals and institutions are subject to and accountable under the law that is fairly applied and enforced.

6. The method of constitutional amendment by Popular Veto is found in which of the following?
(A) United Kingdom
(B) Switzerland
(C) Russia
(D) India

Answer: (B) Switzerland

Explanation: Switzerland has a unique system of direct democracy where certain amendments to the constitution can be made through a popular vote, known as a referendum or popular veto.

7. Which of the following is an indispensable feature of a Parliamentary system of government?
(A) Flexibility of the Constitution
(B) Fusion of Executive and Legislature
(C) Judicial Supremacy
(D) Parliamentary Sovereignty

Answer: (B) Fusion of Executive and Legislature

Explanation: In a Parliamentary system, the executive branch derives its legitimacy from and is accountable to the legislature (parliament); hence there is a fusion of powers between the executive and the legislative branches.

8. Grassroots democracy is related to:
(A) Devolution of Powers
(B) Decentralization of Powers
(C) Panchayati Raj System
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation: Grassroots democracy refers to the strengthening of democracy at the local level. This is achieved through devolution (transfer of power to lower levels), decentralization, and the implementation of the Panchayati Raj system in India, which empowers local self-governments.

9. The goal of Democratic Socialism is:
(A) To bring socialism through peaceful means
(B) To bring socialism through both violent and peaceful means
(C) To bring socialism through violent means
(D) To bring socialism through democratic means

Answer: (D) To bring socialism through democratic means

Explanation: Democratic Socialism seeks to achieve socialist goals within a democratic framework, emphasizing the importance of democracy and rule of law in bringing about social and economic reforms.

10. Which judge stated that ‘Secularism’ and ‘Federalism’ are basic features of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Keshavananda Bharati Case
(B) S.R. Bommai Case
(C) Indira Sawhney Case
(D) Minerva Mills Case

Answer: (B) S.R. Bommai Case

Explanation: In the S.R. Bommai case, the Supreme Court of India declared that ‘Secularism’ and ‘Federalism’ are basic features of the Indian Constitution, meaning they are integral to the structure and cannot be altered by amendments under the basic structure doctrine.

Indian Polity MCQ

11. Universal adult suffrage indicates that India is a country which is:
(A) Secular
(B) Socialist
(C) Democratic
(D) Sovereign

Answer: (C) Democratic

Explanation: Universal adult suffrage refers to the right of all adult citizens to vote in elections, regardless of their social status, wealth, race, or gender. This is a fundamental aspect of a democratic system, where the power to elect representatives is vested in the people.

12. The Constitution of India came into effect on:
(A) 1951
(B) 1956
(C) 1950
(D) 1949

Answer: (C) 1950

Explanation: The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November 1949, but it came into effect on 26th January 1950. This day is celebrated annually as Republic Day in India.

13. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on:
(A) Simon Commission
(B) Lord Curzon Commission
(C) Dimitrov Thesis
(D) Lord Clive’s Report

Answer: (A) Simon Commission

Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1935, which provided for the establishment of provincial autonomy and the creation of a federal structure, was based on the recommendations of the Simon Commission, which was constituted in 1927 to review the working of the constitutional system in India.

14. Who described the Government of India Act, 1935 as a new charter of bondage?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) B.R. Ambedkar

Answer: (C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation: Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru famously described the Government of India Act, 1935, as a “new charter of bondage” because it did not grant India complete independence and instead reinforced British control over the country.

15. Who is the guardian of the Indian Constitution?
(A) President of India
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Answer: (B) Chief Justice of India

Explanation: The Chief Justice of India, as the head of the judiciary, is considered the guardian of the Constitution. The Supreme Court has the authority to interpret the Constitution and ensure that laws and government actions do not violate constitutional principles.

16. Which of the following is an essential element of a state?
(A) Sovereignty
(B) Government
(C) Territory
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these

Explanation: A state is defined by four essential elements: a defined territory, a permanent population, a government, and sovereignty. Without these elements, an entity cannot be considered a state.

17. What is the most important system in a democracy?
(A) Social
(B) Political
(C) Economic
(D) Governmental

Answer: (B) Political

Explanation: In a democracy, the political system is the most important because it involves the processes and structures through which people elect their representatives, make decisions, and ensure that the government is accountable to the people.

18. Where do we find the ideals of Indian democracy in the Constitution?
(A) Preamble
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part I

Answer: (A) Preamble

Explanation: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution outlines the ideals and objectives of Indian democracy, including justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. It reflects the aspirations and values that the Constitution seeks to achieve.

19. The phrase ‘Equality before the law’ used in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Germany
(C) United Kingdom
(D) Greece

Answer: (C) United Kingdom

Explanation: The concept of ‘Equality before the law’ in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution is derived from the British legal system. It means that every individual is equal in the eyes of the law and is entitled to equal protection under the law.

20. The thoughts and ideals of the framers of the Constitution are reflected in:
(A) Preamble
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy

Answer: (A) Preamble

Explanation: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution reflects the thoughts and ideals of the framers. It encapsulates the core principles and values that guided the drafting of the Constitution, including justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.

Also Read: Indian Polity and Constitution MCQ

Indian Polity MCQ With Answers

21. Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Parliamentary form of government
(B) Independence of judiciary
(C) Presidential form of government
(D) Federal government

Answer: (C) Presidential form of government

Explanation: The Indian Constitution establishes a parliamentary form of government where the executive is responsible to the legislature. A presidential form of government, where the executive is independent of the legislature, is not a feature of the Indian system.

22. What did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar refer to as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right against Exploitation
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(D) Right to Religious Freedom

Answer: (C) Right to Constitutional Remedies

Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar referred to the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution because it allows citizens to approach the Supreme Court or High Courts to seek enforcement of their fundamental rights.

23. The concept of single citizenship in India is adopted from:
(A) England
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) France

Answer: (A) England

Explanation: India adopted the concept of single citizenship from the British system, where all citizens are recognized as citizens of the country as a whole, rather than being citizens of individual states.

24. The method of impeachment of the President of India is adopted from:
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) U.S.S.R.
(D) France

Answer: (A) U.S.A.

Explanation: The method of impeachment of the President in India is similar to the process followed in the United States, where the President can be removed from office for violation of the Constitution through a parliamentary process.

25. The term ‘Greater India’ refers to:
(A) Political Unity
(B) Cultural Unity
(C) Religious Unity
(D) Social Unity

Answer: (B) Cultural Unity

Explanation: The term ‘Greater India’ is often used to describe the historical and cultural influence of Indian civilization across various regions in Asia, emphasizing the shared cultural heritage rather than political or religious unity.

26. Which of the following would be called a ‘secular’ state?
(A) A state that follows a particular religion
(B) A state that is anti-religion
(C) A state that does not discriminate among religions
(D) A state that accepts all religions as the state religion

Answer: (C) A state that does not discriminate among religions

Explanation: A secular state is one that maintains neutrality towards all religions, does not favor or discriminate against any religion, and ensures equal treatment of all its citizens irrespective of their religious beliefs.

27. Initially, how many fundamental rights were provided?
(A) Six
(B) Seven
(C) Four
(D) Five

Answer: (B) Seven

Explanation: Initially, the Indian Constitution provided for seven fundamental rights: Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, Right to Property, and Right to Constitutional Remedies. The Right to Property was later removed from the list of fundamental rights by the 44th Amendment Act in 1978.

28. Which of the following types of equality is not suitable for a liberal nation?
(A) Legal Equality
(B) Political Equality
(C) Social Equality
(D) Economic Equality

Answer: (D) Economic Equality

Explanation: In a liberal nation, while legal, political, and social equality are emphasized, economic equality in the sense of equal distribution of wealth and income is often not pursued to the same extent as it may require extensive state intervention, which could conflict with individual freedoms and market dynamics.

29. Which of the following is included in the list of Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen as per the Constitution?
(A) Practice secularism
(B) Develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform
(C) Pay all taxes regularly and correctly to the government
(D) Do not attack any public servant in the course of their duties

Answer: (B) Develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform

Explanation: One of the Fundamental Duties listed in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution is for citizens to develop a scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform, which are essential for fostering an enlightened and progressive society.

30. When were Fundamental Duties included in the Constitution?
(A) 1975
(B) 1976
(C) 1977
(D) 1979

Answer: (B) 1976

Explanation: Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976. This amendment introduced Article 51A, which lists the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.

Indian Polity GK in English

31. Which of the following is a political right?
(A) Right to Work
(B) Right to Education
(C) Right to Freedom of Expression
(D) Right to Vote

Answer: (D) Right to Vote

Explanation: The Right to Vote is a political right that allows citizens to participate in the democratic process by electing their representatives. It is a fundamental aspect of political freedom in a democracy.

32. The provisions of citizenship in the Indian Constitution came into effect in:
(A) 1950
(B) 1949
(C) 1951
(D) 1952

Answer: (A) 1950

Explanation: The provisions related to citizenship in the Indian Constitution came into effect on 26th January 1950, the day the Constitution of India was enacted.

33. What does social justice mean?
(A) Everyone should have equal economic rights.
(B) Everyone should have equal political rights.
(C) All forms of discrimination based on caste, creed, color, and gender should be eliminated.
(D) Everyone should have the right to religious freedom.

Answer: (C) All forms of discrimination based on caste, creed, color, and gender should be eliminated.

Explanation: Social justice refers to the elimination of all forms of discrimination and the promotion of equal opportunities for all individuals, regardless of their caste, creed, color, or gender. It aims to create a fair and just society.

34. The right to vote belongs to which category of rights?
(A) Human Rights
(B) Civil Rights
(C) Natural Rights
(D) Political Rights

Answer: (D) Political Rights

Explanation: The right to vote is a political right, as it enables citizens to participate in the governance of their country by electing their representatives. It is a key element of democratic participation.

35. Which of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble of our Constitution?
(A) Justice
(B) Fraternity
(C) Equality of Status
(D) Universal Adult Suffrage

Answer: (D) Universal Adult Suffrage

Explanation: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution mentions justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as the core values of the nation. However, Universal Adult Suffrage, while an important aspect of the Constitution, is not specifically mentioned in the Preamble.

36. At what age can Indian citizens vote?
(A) 18 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 22 years
(D) 25 years

Answer: (A) 18 years

Explanation: The 61st Amendment Act of 1988 lowered the voting age in India from 21 years to 18 years, allowing a larger segment of the population to participate in the democratic process.

37. According to the Preamble, the ultimate power lies in the hands of:
(A) Parliament
(B) Constitution
(C) President
(D) The People

Answer: (D) The People

Explanation: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution begins with the words “We, the people of India,” signifying that the ultimate power and sovereignty lie with the people of India. It is the people who give the Constitution its authority.

38. Dual citizenship is an important feature of which type of government?
(A) Parliamentary
(B) Federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Authoritarian

Answer: (B) Federal

Explanation: In a federal system of government, dual citizenship refers to the system where citizens are subject to the laws of both the central (federal) government and the state governments. This is a characteristic feature of federal systems like those in the USA. However, India follows a single citizenship model.

39. Which case is related to Fundamental Rights?
(A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967)
(B) West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963)
(C) Sharma vs. Krishna (1959)
(D) State of Bombay vs. Balsara (1951)

Answer: (A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967)

Explanation: The Golaknath case is a landmark judgment in Indian constitutional history. The Supreme Court ruled that Parliament could not curtail any of the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution, thereby strengthening the protection of these rights.

40. According to the Indian Constitution, the right to property is:
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Natural Right
(C) Legal Right
(D) Moral Right

Answer: (C) Legal Right

Explanation: The right to property was originally a Fundamental Right under Article 31, but it was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act in 1978. It is now a legal right under Article 300A.

Indian Polity GK Questions

41. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were borrowed from which constitution?
(A) UK
(B) Ireland
(C) USA
(D) Canada

Answer: (B) Ireland

Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution were inspired by the Irish Constitution. These principles aim to create social and economic conditions under which citizens can lead a good life.

42. How many Fundamental Duties are there in the Indian Constitution?
(A) 1
(B) 9
(C) 11
(D) 8

Answer: (C) 11

Explanation: There are 11 Fundamental Duties listed under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution. These duties were added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 and one more was added later by the 86th Amendment Act in 2002.

43. The Directive Principles of State Policy were adopted from:
(A) British Constitution
(B) Swiss Constitution
(C) American Constitution
(D) Irish Constitution

Answer: (D) Irish Constitution

Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were inspired by the Directive Principles of Social Policy outlined in the Irish Constitution. They guide the government in making policies aimed at social and economic welfare.

44. When were the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens included in the Constitution?
(A) 1952
(B) 1976
(C) 1979
(D) 1981

Answer: (B) 1976

Explanation: The Fundamental Duties were included in the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976. These duties outline the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.

45. During whose tenure was the Right to Property removed from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(A) Indira Gandhi Government
(B) Morarji Desai Government
(C) Narasimha Rao Government
(D) Vajpayee Government

Answer: (B) Morarji Desai Government

Explanation: The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act in 1978, during the tenure of the Morarji Desai government. It was subsequently made a legal right under Article 300A.

46. Which statements are correct about the difference between censure and a no-confidence motion?
  • a) A censure motion should state the reasons for its adoption. On the other hand, a no-confidence motion need not state the reasons for its adoption.
  • b) A no-confidence motion can be moved only against the council of ministers. In contrast, a censure motion can be moved against the council of ministers or an individual minister, or a group of ministers.
  • c) The government must resign if a no-confidence motion is passed. On the other hand, the Government need not resign if a censure motion is passed.
  • d) A censure motion can be moved in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas a no-confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.
  • A) a, c, and d
  • B) b, c, and d
  • C) a and b
  • D) a, b, and c

Answer: D) a, b, and c

Explanation: Option a: Correct. A censure motion should state the reasons for its adoption, while a no-confidence motion need not state the reasons for its adoption.

Option b: Correct. A no-confidence motion can be moved only against the council of ministers. In contrast, a censure motion can be moved against the council of ministers, an individual minister, or a group of ministers.

Option c: Correct. The government must resign if a no-confidence motion is passed. On the other hand, the government need not resign if a censure motion is passed.

Option d: Incorrect. A censure motion can be moved in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas a no-confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.

47. The words ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ were made a part of the Preamble by:
  • A) 41st Amendment
  • B) 44th Amendment
  • C) 46th Amendment
  • D) 42nd Amendment

Answer: D) 42nd Amendment

Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added the words “socialist” and “secular” to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

48. Which of the following are features of the Indian Parliamentary System?
  • 1. Independent Judiciary
  • 2. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
  • 3. A written constitution
  • 4. Presence of de jure and de facto executives
  • 5. Individual responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
A) 2, 3, and 4
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 2, 4, and 5
D) 1, 2, 4, and 5

Answer: C) 2, 4, and 5

Explanation: Option 2: Correct. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature is a feature of the Indian Parliamentary System.

Option 4: Correct. The presence of de jure (legal) and de facto (practical) executives is another feature.

Option 5: Correct. Individual responsibility of the executive to the legislature is also a feature of the Indian Parliamentary System.

Option 1: Incorrect. An independent judiciary is a feature of the Indian Constitution but not specifically of the Parliamentary System.

Option 3: Incorrect. A written Constitution is part of the Indian legal framework but not specific to the Parliamentary System.

49. Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution on the recommendation of which of the following committees?
  • A) Shah Commission
  • B) First Administrative Reforms Commission of India
  • C) Santhanam Committee
  • D) Swaran Singh Committee

Answer: D) Swaran Singh Committee

Explanation: The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution of India on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.

50. Through which of the following acts was the foundation of Central Administration laid in India?
  • A) Charter Act of 1833
  • B) Regulating Act of 1773
  • C) Charter Act of 1853
  • D) Pitt’s India Act of 1784

Answer: B) Regulating Act of 1773

Explanation: The Regulating Act of 1773 laid the foundation for Central Administration in India by establishing the office of the Governor-General and bringing the East India Company’s rule under the control of the British government.

Indian Polity MCQ

51. The electoral college of the President of India consists of which of the following?
  • A) Elected and nominated members of Parliament and State legislatures
  • B) Elected members of Parliament and state legislatures
  • C) Elected members of Parliament but not the elected and nominated in case of a bicameral legislature
  • D) Elected members of all the Union territories

Answer: B) Elected members of Parliament and state legislatures

Explanation: The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.

52. The Prime Minister does not chair which of the following Cabinet Committees?
  • A) Political Affairs Committee
  • B) Appointments Committee
  • C) Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
  • D) Economic Affairs Committee

Answer: C) Committee on Parliamentary Affairs

Explanation: The Committee on Parliamentary Affairs is typically chaired by the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs, not the Prime Minister.

53. The President can perform what function out of the following in the declaration of constitutional emergency?
  • 1) Assume to himself all the functions of the state government, including the high court
  • 2) Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of the governor
  • 3) Assume to himself all the functions of the state government except the High Court
  • 4) Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of the Parliament.

Of the above, the correct statements are:

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4

Answer: C) 3 and 4

Explanation: Option 3: Correct. The President can assume all functions of the state government except those of the High Court.

Option 4: Correct. The President can declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of Parliament.

55. Which of the following items does the Finance Commission recommend to the President?
  • 1. The distribution between the Union and the states of the net proceeds of taxes and the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds.
  • 2. The principles governing the grants aid the states’ revenues from the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • 3. The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a state to supplement the resources of the municipalities in the state based on the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State.
  • 4. Any matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.
A) 1, 2, and 4
B) 1, 2, 3, and 4
C) 1 and 2
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation: The Finance Commission recommends the distribution of taxes between the Union and the states, principles governing grants-in-aid, measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of the state, and any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.

56. The Chairman of which of the following parliamentary committees is invariably from the members of the ruling party?
  • A) Estimates Committee
  • B) Committee on Public Undertakings
  • C) Public Accounts Committee
  • D) Committee on Delegated Legislation

Answer: A) Estimates Committee

Explanation: The Chairman of the Estimates Committee is invariably from the ruling party, while other committees like the Public Accounts Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings are often chaired by members from opposition parties.

57. Which of the following is not a formally prescribed device available to the members of Parliament?
  • A) Question Hour
  • B) Zero Hour
  • C) Half-an-hour discussion
  • D) Short duration discussion

Answer: B) Zero Hour

Explanation: Zero Hour is not a formally prescribed device in the parliamentary rules. It is an informal practice that allows members of Parliament to raise urgent matters without prior notice. The other three options—Question Hour, Half-an-hour discussion, and Short duration discussion—are formally prescribed devices.

58. Which of the following is exclusively a committee of the Lower House?
  • A) Committee on Assurances
  • B) Committee on Delegated Legislation
  • C) Committee on Public Undertakings
  • D) Estimates Committee

Answer: D) Estimates Committee

Explanation: The Estimates Committee is exclusively a committee of the Lok Sabha (the Lower House of Parliament). The other committees mentioned have members from both Houses of Parliament.

59. Which state created the institution of Lokayukta for the first time?
  • A) Orissa
  • B) Bihar
  • C) Punjab
  • D) Maharashtra

Answer: D) Maharashtra

Explanation: Maharashtra was the first state in India to establish the institution of Lokayukta in 1971.

60. On the recommendation of which of the following committee was the Central Vigilance Commission set up?
  • A) First Administrative Reforms Commission of India
  • B) Gorwala Report
  • C) Kripalani Committee
  • D) Santhanam Committee

Answer: D) Santhanam Committee

Explanation: The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee, which was set up to address issues of corruption in India.

Indian Polity MCQ

61. Which one of the following devices calls the minister’s attention to a matter of public importance?
  • A) Half-an-hour discussion
  • B) Calling attention notice
  • C) Short duration discussion
  • D) Adjournment Motion

Answer: B) Calling attention notice

Explanation: A Calling Attention Notice is a device in Parliament that allows members to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance and seek an authoritative statement from the minister.

62. Mark the correct statements related to the Central Administrative Tribunal.
  • 1. It is a statutory body.
  • 2. Its members are drawn from the administrative background only.
  • 3. It is not bound by the procedure prescribed in the code of civil procedure.
  • 4. Its jurisdiction covers the members of All India Services and Central Services and Central Government posts.
  • 5. It was set up in 1985.
A) 2, 3, and 5
B) 1 and 4
C) 1, 3, 4, and 5
D) 2 and 3

Answer: C) 1, 3, 4, and 5

Explanation: Option 1: Correct. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) is a statutory body.

Option 3: Correct. The CAT is not bound by the procedure prescribed in the Code of Civil Procedure.

Option 4: Correct. The CAT’s jurisdiction covers members of All India Services, Central Services, and Central Government posts.

Option 5: Correct. The CAT was set up in 1985.

Option 2: Incorrect. Members of the CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative backgrounds, not just administrative.

63. Which of the following statements are true about the state governor?
  • 1. The executive power of the state is vested in him.
  • 2. He must have attained 35 years of age.
  • 3. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
  • 4. The grounds for his removal are laid in the Constitution.
A) 1, 2, and 4
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 1, 3, and 4
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: B) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation: Option 1: Correct. The executive power of the state is vested in the governor.

Option 2: Correct. The governor must have attained 35 years of age.

Option 3: Correct. The governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.

Option 4: Incorrect. The Constitution does not lay down specific grounds for the removal of a governor.

64. Which of the following are true of the recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj?
  • 1. Creation of Mandal Panchayat, covering a population of 10,000 to 15,000
  • 2. The state legislature has a committee on Panchayati Raj to look after the needs of the weaker section.
  • 3. If Panchayati Raj institutions are superseded, elections must be held within one year.
  • 4. Nyaya Panchayats should be presided over by the village development officer.
A) 1, 2, and 4
B) 2 and 4
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) Only 2

Answer: C) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation: Option 1: Correct. The Ashok Mehta Committee recommended the creation of Mandal Panchayats covering a population of 10,000 to 15,000.

Option 2: Correct. The committee recommended that the state legislature should have a committee on Panchayati Raj to look after the needs of the weaker sections.

Option 3: Correct. The committee recommended that if Panchayati Raj institutions are superseded, elections must be held within one year.

Option 4: Incorrect. Nyaya Panchayats should be presided over by a village development officer was not a recommendation of the Ashok Mehta Committee.

65. The Constitution says that the State Council of Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. The words “during the pleasure of the Governor” in reality mean:
  • A) Pleasure of the President
  • B) Pleasure of the Prime Minister
  • C) Pleasure of the Chief Minister
  • D) Pleasure of the Legislative Assembly

Answer: C) Pleasure of the Chief Minister

Explanation: The phrase “during the pleasure of the Governor” means that the State Council of Ministers stays in power as long as it has the support of the Chief Minister and the majority in the state assembly. The Governor’s power to remove the Council is mostly a formality, and the real control is with the Chief Minister.

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