Indian Polity and Constitution MCQ
21. In how much time the proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament?
[A] 15 days
[B] One month
[C] Two months
[D] Three months
[B] One month
Notes:
National Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue.
By 44th Amendment Act of 1978 the period of approval was reduced to one month. Originally, the period allowed was two months.
22. Which of the following statements is correct for Public Interest Litigation?
[A] It only deals with the rights of the poor
[B] It recognizes that ordinary marketplace for legal services fails to represent everybody
[C] Both of them
[D] None of them
C [Both of them]
Notes:
The concept of Public Interest Litigation recognizes the fact that the ordinary marketplace for legal services fails to provide legal representation to significant sections of the population. These usually include the poor, environmentalists, consumers, racial and ethnic minorities, and many others.
23. Which constitutional amendment added the provision that a member of either House of state legislature belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister?
[A] 90th
[B] 91st
[C] 92nd
[D] 93rd
[B] 91st
Notes:
The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 added the provision that a member of either House of state legislature belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister.
24. Who can appoint a judge of a high court as an acting chief justice of the high court?
[A] Parliament
[B] Chief Justice of India
[C] President
[D] Governor
C [President]
Notes:
The President of India can appoint a judge of a high court as an acting chief justice of the high court when the office of chief justice of the high court is vacant; or the chief justice of the high court is temporarily absent; or the chief justice of the high court is unable to perform the duties of his office.
25. Who can establish, construct or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, roads and so on in the tribal autonomous districts?
[A] Governor
[B] District Council
[C] Legislative Assembly
[D] None of the above
B [District Council]
Notes:
The district council of the autonomous districts can establish, construct or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, roads and so on in the district.
26. Forwards Market Commission is which type of body?
[A] Statutory body
[B] Constitutional body
[C] Executive body
[D] Legislative body
[A] Statutory body
Notes:
The Forwards Market Commission in India is a statutory entity. It is involved in the monitoring and regulating the operations, activities of the commodities futures market in India.
27. The Unique Identification Authority of India was constituted in which year as an attached office under the aegis of Planning Commission?
[A] 2005
[B] 2007
[C] 2009
[D] 2011
[C] 2009
Notes:
The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) was constituted in January, 2009 by the government of India as an attached office under the aegis of the Planning Commission of India.
28. Which of the following are the specialized wings of NITI Aayog?
- 1. Research Wing
- 2. Consultancy Wing
- 3. Team India Wing
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
D [1, 2 & 3]
Notes:
NITI Aayog consists of a number of specialized wings such as the research wing, the consultancy wing, the team India wing. NITI Aayog functions in close cooperation, consultation and coordination with the Ministries of the Central Government, and State Governments of India.
29. Which of the following reviews the progress of investigations conducted by the Delhi Special Police Establishment into offences alleged to have been committed under the prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?
[A] Central Vigilance Commission
[B] Central Bureau of Investigation
[C] Lokpal
[D] High Court
[A] Central Vigilance Commission
Notes:
The Central Vigilance Commission reviews the progress of investigations conducted by the Delhi Special Police Establishment into offences alleged to have been committed under the prevention of Corruption Act of the year 1988.
30. What all crimes can CBI investigate?
[A] Terrorist attacks
[B] Economic offences
[C] Funding of terrorism
[D] None of the above
[B] Economic offences
Notes:
CBI can investigate following crimes-
1. Corruption
2. Economic offences
3. Serious and organized crime other than terrorism